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A question about betterball matchplay...

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Post by theeldestboy Mon 9 May - 17:51

Hello all,

I wanted to get your opinions and experience on a situation I recently encountered in a matchplay competition. This was an inter-society cup, consisting of 4 leagues of 6 teams, 5 leagues games, then quarters, semis and the final.

The format was betterball matchplay, with each team consisting of 4 players (2 betterball teams playing a fixture each), with 3 points awarded for a win, and 1 for a half. For the quarterfinals, semi finals and final, it was determined that in the event of each team winning one match, 2 players would be selected to compete in playoff holes until an outright winner was found.

After a long 5 month slog, my team got the final, which was held a few weeks ago. Our other pair won their fixture 4&3, having lead from the 2nd hole. This meant that in my match we just needed a half in my fixture to take the overall win. We lead from the 4th hole until going behind on 15, then we went all-square on 16. We halved 17 (I actually 3 putted from 20ft, when 2 putts would have sealed the whole competition Doh ). On 18, one of our opponents received a stroke, and he got a 4 against my 5 to win the hole and the match. So, we were one victory each, and so 2 selected players from each side went down the first for a playoff, which we lost.

Now, the competition format was consistent from start to finish, and I am not begrudging the other team their victory. They played very well, and they were a really gracious in victory. We were pleased to get to the final, and while disappointed with the result, were happy with our performance.

However, I would be lying if I said that I didn’t feel slightly aggrieved by the fact that we lost despite one of our teams had won 4&3, while we had lost 1DN, on the 18, to a stroking hole. In one of the quarter finals, one team was eliminated despite the fact that they had won one match 7&6 and lost the other 1DN. Yes, I understand that it’s a team event, but could/should these matches have been decided on holes won? If you have played a similar format, what is your experience of how matches are decided in the event of an overall tie? I have spoken to a few people about this, and opinion seems mixed. It does seem to be that this is the “standard format”, though some people had played competitions determined by overall holes won.

Any thoughts?
theeldestboy
theeldestboy

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Join date : 2011-01-30
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Post by George1507 Mon 9 May - 19:07

I'd say that the format as you described it is the standard way, and the fairest.

If you take winning margins into account, there are always disagreements about whether someone won 3&2 or 4&2, and people say things like 'I would have made him putt that 2 footer in if I'd known this would happen'.

So, in order to keep things peaceful, I think it's the right way.

George1507

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Post by Bloxboy Mon 9 May - 20:02

Well said George! Once a game is over, it's over and it would be against all that golf stands for to ask an already beaten opponent to carry on hoping to squeeze a bit more from him.
Taken to its conclusion, you could do the same in the Ryder Cup so you'd never have a 14-14 draw as one of the teams would have better winning margins' I don't think so.
Sorry eldest boy - I think the format is fair especially if it was known from the outset.

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Post by drive4show Mon 9 May - 21:36

Agreed, it's either a win, a draw or a defeat. Margins don't come into it.

Harsh...but fair.

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